NEET Answer key 2022 PDF (OUT) By NTA Official Website neet.nta.nic.in How to check UG Exam Question Paper Solution download Code wise Q,R,S,T 1 2 3 4 5 6 Aakash Allen Gurukripa Release Date

NEET Answer key 2022 PDF Q1,Q2,Q3,Q4,R1,R2,R3,R4,S1,S2,S3,S4,T1,T2,T3,T4 @neet.nta.nic.in Official Answer key 17 july 2022 download in pdf by Allen, CLC Sikar & Aakash institute coaching NEET R S T Code wise official answer key check online Physics, Chemistry, and Biology OMR Sheet in PDF NEET 2022 Answer key 

NEET Answer key 2022

NEET Answer key 17 July 2022 PDF- R1, R2, R3, R4, R5 & R6

Hello Friends, NEET 2022 is going to be conducted by National Testing Agency on 17th July 2022 at various centers in different cities of India. This exam is conducted every year by NTA. About 17 to 18 lakh candidates try their luck in this exam. So friends, let’s talk about its answer, Now let’s talk about what kind of questions were asked in subject wise so today its exam is to be held from 2:00 pm to 5:00 pm.

NTA NEET Result 2022 (Release Date) Check Online link nta.ac.in Rank Card By Name, Cut off Counselling Date

 

NTA Neet Answer Date Sheet – Code S1, S2, S3, S4, S5, S6 & T1, T2, T3, T4, T5, T6

NEET Exam 2022 will be held on July 17 in a single shift. After that all the candidates will search its answer key code wise. At present, the paper of M code, O code and P board is going on in the NEET exam, so in this article we will provide you different code wise question paper and its solution here soon. Candidates will be able to download the official NEET answer key 2022 on the release date. Till then you keep visiting our website ndlm.in.

NEET 2022 Question Paper Set

NEET 2022 Answer Key by Aakash

NEET 2022 Solutions by Aakash

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How to Check Neet 2022 Official Answer key

This table is here to give you detail on NTA NEET UG OMR Sheet 2022 Release Date. According to sources, candidates can Download the Answer Key by 23 August 2022 and then use it further for calculation of Marks. If you get more than 45% Marks in exam then you are eligible for Admission in desired course. So we suggest you to get minimum marks in the exam to get admission in MBBS or BDS or Ayush Courses. Now once the Answer Key is released, all of you need to wait for NEET Result which is usually published after 7 Days of it.

NEET 2022 Question Answer 

Physics

1. The dimensions [MLT–2A–2] belong to the
(1) Magnetic permeability
(2) Electric permittivity
(3) Magnetic flux
(4) Self inductance
Answer (1)

2. An ideal gas undergoes four different processes from the same initial state as shown in the figure below.
Those processes are adiabatic, isothermal, isobaric and isochoric. The curve which represents the adiabatic
process among 1, 2, 3 and 4 is
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 1
(4) 2
Answer (4)

3. A biconvex lens has radii of curvature, 20 cm each. If the refractive index of the material of the lens is 1.5, the
power of the lens is
(1) +5D
(2) Infinity
(3) +2D
(4) +20D
Answer (1)

4. The ratio of the radius of gyration of a thin uniform disc about an axis passing through its centre and normal
to its plane to the radius of gyration of the disc about its diameter is
(1) 4 : 1
(2) 1: 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 2 :1
Answer (4)
SECTION – A

5. The angle between the electric lines of force and the equipotential surface is
(1) 90°
(2) 180°
(3) 0°
(4) 45°
Answer (1)

6. Two objects of mass 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are connected to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 10 m
with negligible mass. The distance of the center of mass of the system from the 10 kg mass is
(1) 10 m
(2) 5 m
(3) 10 m
(4) 20 m
Answer (4)

7. The ratio of the distances travelled by a freely falling body in the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th second
(1) 1 : 3 : 5 : 7
(2) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4
(4) 1 : 4 : 9 : 16
Answer (1)

8. A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of a highly viscous liquid. The curve in the graph shown, which
represents the speed of the ball (v) as a function of time (t) is
(1) C
(2) D
(3) A
(4) B
Answer (4)

9. The angular speed of a fly wheel moving with uniform angular acceleration changes from 1200 rpm to 3120
rpm in 16 seconds. The angular acceleration in rad/s2 is
(1) 12π
(2) 104π
(3) 2π
(4) 4π
Answer (4)

10. In a Young’s double slit experiment, a student observes 8 fringes in a certain segment of screen when a
monochromatic light of 600 nm wavelength is used. If the wavelength of light is changed to 400 nm, then the
number of fringes he would observe in the same region of the screen is
(1) 9
(2) 12
(3) 6
(4) 8
Answer (2)

11. Match List-I with List-II
List-I
(Electromagnetic waves)
List-II
(Wavelength)
(a) AM radio waves (i) 10–10 m
(b) Microwaves (ii) 102 m
(c) Infrared radiations (iii) 10–2 m
(d) X-rays (iv) 10–4 m
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(2) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
(3) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(4) (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)
Answer (2)

12. The graph which shows the variation of the de Broglie wavelength (λ) of a particle and its associated
momentum (p) is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer (2)

13. When light propagates through a material medium of relative permittivity εr and relative permeability μr, the
velocity of light, v is given by (c-velocity of light in vacuum)
(1) r
r
v
ε
=
μ
(2)
r r
v = c
ε μ
(3) v = c
(4) r
r
v
μ
=
ε
Answer (2)

14. If a soap bubble expands, the pressure inside the bubble
(1) Remains the same
(2) Is equal to the atmospheric pressure
(3) Decreases
(4) Increases
Answer (3)

15. A body of mass 60 g experiences a gravitational force of 3.0 N, when placed at a particular point. The
magnitude of the gravitational field intensity at that point is
(1) 20 N/kg
(2) 180 N/kg
(3) 0.05 N/kg
(4) 50 N/kg
Answer (4)

16. In the given nuclear reaction, the element X is
22
11Na → X + e+ + v
(1) 22
10Ne
(2) 22
12Mg
(3) 23
11Na
(4) 23
10Ne
Answer (1)

17. Let T1 and T2 be the energy of an electron in the first and second excited states of hydrogen atoms,
respectively. According to the Bohr’s model of an atom, the ratio T1 : T2 is
(1) 4 : 9
(2) 9 : 4
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 4 : 1
Answer (2)

18.
When two monochromatic lights of frequency, v and
2
v are incident on a photoelectric metal, their stopping
potential becomes
2
Vs and Vs respectively. The threshold frequency for this metal is
(1) 2
3
v
(2) 3
2
v
(3) 2v
(4) 3v
Answer (2*)
* Language of question is wrongly framed. The values of stopping potentials must be interchanged.

19. A light ray falls on a glass surface of refractive index 3 , at an angle 60°. The angle between the refracted
and reflected rays would be
(1) 90°
(2) 120°
(3) 30°
(4) 60°
Answer (1)

20. A shell of mass m is at rest initially. It explodes into three fragments having mass in the ratio 2 : 2 : 1. If the
fragments having equal mass fly off along mutually perpendicular directions with speed v, the speed of the
third (lighter) fragment is
(1) 2 2v
(2) 3 2v
(3) v
(4) 2v
Answer (1)

21. Two hollow conducting spheres of radii R1 and R2 (R1 >> R2) have equal charges. The potential would be
(1) Equal on both the spheres
(2) Dependent on the material property of the sphere
(3) More on bigger sphere
(4) More on smaller sphere
Answer (4)

22. As the temperature increases, the electrical resistance
(1) Increases for conductors but decreases for semiconductors
(2) Decreases for conductors but increases for semiconductors
(3) Increases for both conductors and semiconductors
(4) Decreases for both conductors and semiconductors
Answer (1)

23. The displacement-time graphs of two moving particles make angles of 30° and 45° with the x-axis as shown
in the figure. The ratio of their respective velocity is
(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1: 3
(3) 3 : 1
(4) 1 : 1
Answer (2)

24. A square loop of side 1 m and resistance 1 Ω is placed in a magnetic field of 0.5 T. If the plane of loop is
perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field, the magnetic flux through the loop is
(1) 1 weber
(2) Zero weber
(3) 2 weber
(4) 0.5 weber
Answer (4)

25.
In the given circuits (a), (b) and (c), the potential drop across the two p-n junctions are equal in
(1) Circuit (c) only
(2) Both circuits (a) and (c)
(3) Circuit (a) only
(4) Circuit (b) only
Answer (2)

26.
A copper wire of length 10 m and radius
10 2 m
 − 
   π 
has electrical resistance of 10 Ω. The current density in
the wire for an electric field strength of 10 (V/m) is
(1) 10–5 A/m2
(2) 105 A/m2
(3) 104 A/m2
(4) 106 A/m2
Answer (2)

27. An electric lift with a maximum load of 2000 kg (lift + passengers) is moving up with a constant speed of
1.5 ms–1. The frictional force opposing the motion is 3000 N. The minimum power delivered by the motor to
the lift in watts is : (g = 10 ms–2)
(1) 34500
(2) 23500
(3) 23000
(4) 20000
Answer (1)

28. Given below are two statements
Statement I : Biot-Savart’s law gives us the expression for the magnetic field strength of an infinitesimal
current element (Idl) of a current carrying conductor only.
Statement II : Biot-Savart’s law is analogous to Coulomb’s inverse square law of charge q, with the former
being related to the field produce by a scalar source, Idl while the latter being produced by a vector source, q.
In light of above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Answer (1)

29. Two resistors of resistance, 100 Ω and 200 Ω are connected in parallel in an electrical circuit. The ratio of the thermal energy developed in 100 Ω to that in 200 Ω in a given time is
(1) 1 : 4
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 2 : 1
Answer (4)

30. The energy that will be ideally radiated by a 100 kW transmitter in 1 hour is
(1) 36 × 105 J
(2) 1 × 105 J
(3) 36 × 107 J
(4) 36 × 104 J
Answer (3)

31. A long solenoid of radius 1 mm has 100 turns per mm. If 1 A current flows in the solenoid, the magnetic field
strength at the centre of the solenoid is
(1) 12.56 × 10–4 T
(2) 6.28 × 10–4 T
(3) 6.28 × 10–2 T
(4) 12.56 × 10–2 T
Answer (4)

32. Plane angle and solid angle have
(1) No units and no dimensions
(2) Both units and dimensions
(3) Units but no dimensions
(4) Dimensions but no units
Answer (3)

33. In half wave rectification, if the input frequency is 60 Hz, then the output frequency would be
(1) 60 Hz
(2) 120 Hz
(3) Zero
(4) 30 Hz
Answer (1)

34. The peak voltage of the ac source is equal to
(1) 2 times the rms value of the ac source
(2) 1/ 2 times the rms value of the ac source
(3) The value of voltage supplied to the circuit
(4) The rms value of the ac source
Answer (1)

35. If the initial tension on a stretched string is doubled, then the ratio of the initial and final speeds of a transverse
wave along the string is
(1) 1: 2
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 2 :1
Answer (1)

36. Two pendulums of length 121 cm and 100 cm start vibrating in phase. At some instant, the two are at their
mean position in the same phase. The minimum number of vibrations of the shorter pendulum after which the
two are again in phase at the mean position is:
(1) 10
(2) 8
(3) 11
(4) 9
Answer (3)

37. A ball is projected with a velocity, 10 ms–1, at an angle of 60° with the vertical direction. Its speed at the highest
point of its trajectory will be
(1) 5 ms–1
(2) 10 ms–1
(3) Zero
(4) 5 3 ms−1
Answer (4)

38. A wheatstone bridge is used to determine the value of unknown resistance X by adjusting the variable
resistance Y as shown in the figure. For the most precise measurement of X, the resistances P and Q
(1) should be very large and unequal
(2) do not play any significant role
(3) should be approximately equal to 2X
(4) should be approximately equal and are small
Answer (4)

SECTION – B

39. Two point charges –q and +q are placed at a distance of L, as shown in the figure.
The magnitude of electric field intensity at a distance R(R>>L) varies as:
(1) 4
1
R
(2) 6
1
R
(3) 2
1
R
(4) 3
1
R
Answer (4)

40. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The stretching of a spring is determined by the shear modulus of the material of the spring.
Reason (R): A coil spring of copper has more tensile strength than a steel spring of same dimensions.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer (1)

41. A nucleus of mass number 189 splits into two nuclei having mass number 125 and 64. The ratio of radius of
two daughter nuclei respectively is
(1) 5 : 4
(2) 25 : 16
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 4 : 5
Answer (1)

42. Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
(a) Gravitational constant (G) (i) [L2T–2]
(b) Gravitational potential energy (ii) [M–1L3T–2]
(c) Gravitational potential (iii) [LT–1]
(d) Gravitational intensity (iv) [ML2T–2]
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i)
(2) (a) – (iv), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)
(3) (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)
(4) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)
Answer (4)

43. The area of a rectangular field (in m2) of length 55.3 m and breadth 25 m after rounding off the value for correct
significant digits is
(1) 1382.5
(2) 14 × 102
(3) 138 × 101
(4) 1382
Answer (2)

44. A big circular coil of 1000 turns and average radius 10 m is rotating about its horizontal diameter at 2 rad s–1.
If the vertical component of earth’s magnetic field at that place is 2 × 10–5 T and electrical resistance of the
coil is 12.56 Ω, then the maximum induced current in the coil will be
(1) 1 A
(2) 2 A
(3) 0.25 A
(4) 1.5 A
Answer (1)

45. Two transparent media A and B are separated by a plane boundary. The speed of light in those media are
1.5 × 108 m/s and 2.0 × 108 m/s, respectively. The critical angle for a ray of light for these two media is
(1) tan–1 (0.500)
(2) tan–1 (0.750)
(3) sin–1 (0.500)
(4) sin–1 (0.750)
Answer (4)

46. A series LCR circuit with inductance 10 H, capacitance 10 μF , resistance 50 Ω is connected to an ac source
of voltage, V = 200sin(100t) volt. If the resonant frequency of the LCR circuit is v0 and the frequency of the ac
source is v, then
(1) 0
v = 50 Hz, v = 50 Hz
π
(2) 0
v = 100 Hz; v = 100 Hz
π
(3) v0 = v = 50 Hz
(4) 0
v = v = 50 Hz
π
Answer (4)

47. A capacitor of capacitance C = 900 pF is charges fully by 100 V battery B as shown in figure (a). Then it is
disconnected from the battery and connected to another uncharged capacitor of capacitance C = 900 pF as
shown in figure (b). The electrostatic energy stored by the system (b) is
(1) 2.25 × 10–6 J
(2) 1.5 × 10–6 J
(3) 4.5 × 10–6 J
(4) 3.25 × 10–6 J
Answer (1)

48. From Ampere’s circuital law for a long straight wire of circular cross-section carrying a steady current, the
variation of magnetic field in the inside and outside region of the wire is
(1) A lineraly increasing function of distance r upto the boundary of the wire and then decreasing one with
1
r
dependeanc for the outside region.
(2) A linearly decreasing function of distance upto the boundary of the wire and then a linearly increasing
one for the outside region.
(3) Uniform the remains constant for both the regions.
(4) A linearly increasing function of distance upto the boundary of the wire and then linearly decreasing for
the outside region.
Answer (1)

49.
The truth table for the given logic circuit is
(1)
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 1
1 1 0
A B C
(2)
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 0
1 1 1
A B C
(3)
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0
A B C
(4)
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1
A B C
Answer (1)

50. The volume occupied by the molecules contained in 4.5 kg water at STP, if the intermolecular forces vanish
away is
(1) 5.6 × 10–3 m3
(2) 5.6 m3
(3) 5.6 × 106 m3
(4) 5.6 × 103 m3
Answer (2)

Chemistry

1. Which of the following statement is not correct about diborane?
(1) The four terminal Hydrogen atoms and the two Boron atoms lie in one plane.
(2) Both the Boron atoms are sp2 hybridised.
(3) There are two 3-centre-2-electron bonds.
(4) The four terminal B-H bonds are two centre two electron bonds.
Answer (2)

2.Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): ICI is more reactive than I2.
Reason (R): I-CI bond is weaker than I-I bond.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) (A) is correct but R is not correct
(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer (3)

3.In one molal solution that contains 0.5 mole of a solute, there is
(1) 100 mL of solvent
(2) 1000 g of solvent
(3) 500 mL of solvent
(4) 500 g of solvent
Answer (4)

4. Given below are half cell reactions:
− + − + + + → + 2
MnO4 8H 5e Mn 4H2O
2+ − = −
4
º
Mn /MnO
E 1.510 V
+ − 2 + + → 2
1
O 2H 2e H O
2
= +
2 2
ºO
E /H O 1.223 V
Will the permanganate ion, –
MnO4 liberate O2 from water in the presence of an acid?
(1) Yes, because  Ecell = + 2.733 V
(2) No, because  Ecell = − 2.733 V
(3) Yes, because  Ecell = + 0.287 V
(4) No, because  Ecell = – 0.287 V
Answer (3)

SECTION – A
CHEMISTRY

5. Identify the incorrect statement from the following.
(1) In an atom, all the five 3d orbitals are equal in energy in free state.
(2) The shapes of dxy, dyz and dzx orbitals are similar to each other; and
−22xy
d and 2 z
d are similar to
each other.
(3) All the five 5d orbitals are different in size when compared to the respective 4d orbitals.
(4) All the five 4d orbitals have shapes similar to the respective 3d orbitals.
Answer (2)

.6.  What mass of 95% pure CaCO3 will be required to neutralise 50 mL of 0.5 M HCl solution according to the
following reaction?
CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(i)
[Calculate upto second place of decimal point]
(1) 3.65 g
(2) 9.50 g
(3) 1.25 g
(4) 1.32 g
Answer (4)

7. +
dry H3O
2  ether RMgX+CO ⎯⎯⎯→Y⎯⎯⎯→RCOOH
What is Y in the above reaction?
(1) RCOO–X+
(2) (RCOO)2Mg
(3) RCOO–Mg+X
(4) R3CO–Mg+X
Answer (3)
Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
(a) Li (i) absorbent for carbon dioxide
(b) Na (ii) electrochemical cells
(c) KOH (iii) coolant in fast breeder reactors
(d) Cs (iv) photoelectric cell

8.Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii)
(2) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)
(3) (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (iii), (d) – (ii)
(4) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
Answer (2)

.9  Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
(Drug class) (Drug molecule)
(a) Antacids (i) Salvarsan
(b) Antihistamines (ii) Morphine
(c) Analgesics (iii) Cimetidine
(d) Antimicrobials (iv) Seldane
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a) – (i), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)
(2) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)
(3) (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
(4) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
Answer (4)

10 Which one is not correct mathematical equation for Dalton’s Law of partial pressure? Here p = total pressure
of gaseous mixture
(1) pi = Xip, where pi = partial pressure of ith gas
Xi = mole fraction of ith gas in gaseous mixture
(2) i i p = X pi
 , where Xi = mole fraction of ith gas in gaseous mixture
pi
 = pressure of ith gas in pure state
(3) p = p1 + p2 + p3
(4) 1 2 3
RT RT RT
p = n +n +n
V V V
Answer (2)

11. Which statement regarding polymers is not correct?
(1) Thermoplastic polymers are capable of repeatedly softening and hardening on heating and cooling
respectively
(2) Thermosetting polymers are reusable
(3) Elastomers have polymer chains held together by weak intermolecular forces
(4) Fibers possess high tensile strength
Answer (2)

12. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons of comparable
molecular masses because of weak molecular association in aldehydes and ketones due to dipole – dipole
interactions.
Statement II : The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are lower than the alcohols of similar molecular
masses due to the absence of H-bonding.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the given below
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Answer (3)

.!3 The IUPAC name of an element with atomic number 119 is
(1) unununnium
(2) ununoctium
(3) ununennium
(4) unnilennium
Answer (3)

14. At 298 K, the standard electrode potentials of Cu2+ / Cu, Zn2+ / Zn, Fe2+ / Fe and Ag+ / Ag are 0.34 V,
–0.76 V, –0.44 V and 0.80 V, respectively.
On the basis of standard electrode potential, predict which of the following reaction cannot occur?
(1) FeSO4(aq) + Zn(s) → ZnSO4(aq) + Fe(s)
(2) 2CuSO4(aq) + 2Ag(s) → 2Cu(s) + Ag2SO4(aq)
(3) CuSO4(aq) + Zn(s) → ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
(4) CuSO4(aq) + Fe(s) → FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
Answer (2) 

15 The Kjeldahl’s method for the estimation of nitrogen can be used to estimate the amount of nitrogen in which
one of the following compounds?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer (1)

16 . The given graph is a representation of kinetics of a reaction.
The y and x axes for zero and first order reactions, respectively are
(1) zero order (y = rate and x = concentration), first order (y = t½ and x = concentration)
(2) zero order (y = rate and x = concentration), first order (y = rate and x = t½)
(3) zero order (y = concentration and x = time), first order (y = t½ and x = concentration)
(4) zero order (y = concentration and x = time), first order (y = rate constant and x = concentration)
Answer (1)

17. Identify the incorrect statement from the following
(1) Ionisation enthalpy of alkali metals decreases from top to bottom in the group.
(2) Lithium is the strongest reducing agent among the alkali metals.
(3) Alkali metals react with water to form their hydroxides.
(4) The oxidation number of K in KO2 is +4.
Answer (4)

18. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A):
In a particular point defect, an ionic solid is electrically neutral, even if few of its cations are missing from its
unit cells.
Reason (R):
In an ionic solid, Frenkel defect arises due to dislocation of cation from its lattice site to interstitial site,
maintaining overall electrical neutrality.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer (4)

19 The IUPAC name of the complex-
[Ag(H2O2][Ag(CN)2] is:
(1) dicyanidosilver(I) diaquaargentate(I)
(2) diaquasilver(I) dicyanidoargentate(I)
(3) dicyanidosilver(II) diaquaargentate(II)
(4) diaquasilver(II) dicyanidoargentate(II)
Answer (2)

20 Choose the correct statement:

(1) Diamond is sp3 hybridised and graphite is sp2 hybridized.
(2) Both diamond and graphite are used as dry lubricants.
(3) Diamond and graphite have two dimensional network.
(4) Diamond is covalent and graphite is ionic.
Answer (1)

21. Given below are two statements
Statement I:
In the coagulation of a negative sol, the flocculating power of the three given ions is in the order
Al3+ > Ba2+ > Na+
Statement II:
In the coagulation of a positive sol, the flocculating power of the three given salts is in the order
NaCl > Na2SO4 > Na3PO4
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Answer (1)

22 Given below are two statements
Statement I:
Primary aliphatic amines react with HNO2 to give unstable diazonium salts.
Statement II:
Primary aromatic amines react with HNO2 to form diazonium salts which are stable even above 300 K. In
the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Answer (1)

23. Gadolinium has a low value of third ionisation enthalpy because of
(1) high electronegativity
(2) high basic character
(3) small size
(4) high exchange enthalpy
Answer (4)

24 Match List-I with List-II.
List – I List – II
(Hydrides) (Nature)
(a) MgH2 (i) Electron precise
(b) GeH4 (ii) Electron deficient
(c) B2H6 (iii) Electron rich
(d) HF (iv) Ionic

25 Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)
(2) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
(3) (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)
(4) (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)
Answer (3)
26 Match List-I with List-II.
List – I List – II
(Products formed) (Reaction of carbonyl compound with)
(a) Cyanohydrin (i) NH2OH
(b) Acetal (ii) RNH2
(c) Schiff’s base (iii) alcohol
(d) Oxime (iv) HCN

27 Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) (a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)
(2) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(3) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(4) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
Answer (2)

28. Given below are two statements
Statement I
The boiling points of the following hydrides of group 16 elements increases in the order –
H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te
Statement II
The boiling points of these hydrides increase with increase in molar mass.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Answer (4)

29. The pH of the solution containing 50 mL each of 0.10 M sodium acetate and 0.01 M acetic acid is
[Given pKa of CH3COOH = 4.57]
(1) 4.57
(2) 2.57
(3) 5.57
(4) 3.57
Answer (3)

30. Amongst the following which one will have maximum ‘lone pair – lone pair’ electron repulsions?
(1) SF4
(2) XeF2
(3) CIF3
(4) IF5
Answer (2)

31. The incorrect statement regarding chirality is
(1) Enantiomers are superimposable mirror images on each other
(2) A racemic mixture shows zero optical rotation
(3) SN1 reaction yields 1 : 1 mixture of both enantiomers
(4) The product obtained by SN2 reaction of haloalkane having chirality at the reactive site shows inversion
of configuration
Answer (1)

32 Which amongst the following is incorrect statement?
(1) 2H+ ion has one electron
(2) 2O+ ion is diamagnetic
(3) The bond orders of 2 2 2 O ,O ,O + − and 2
2 O − are 2.5, 2, 1.5 and 1, respectively
(4) C2 molecule has four electrons in its two degenerate  molecular orbitals
Answer (2)

33. Which of the following sequence of reactions is suitable to synthesize chlorobenzene?
(1) , HCl
(2) , HCl, Heating
(3) Benzene, Cl2, anhydrous FeCl3
(4) Phenol, NaNO2, HCl, CuCl
Answer (3)

34. Which compound amongst the following is not an aromatic compound?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer (2)

35. The incorrect statement regarding enzymes is
(1) Enzymes are polysaccharides.
(2) Enzymes are very specific for a particular reaction and substrate.
(3) Enzymes are biocatalysts.
(4) Like chemical catalysts enzymes reduce the activation energy of bio processes.
Answer (1)

36. Which of the following p-V curve represents maximum work done?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer (4)

37. Given below are two statements
Statement I:
The acidic strength of monosubstituted nitrophenol is higher than phenol because of electron withdrawing
nitro group.
Statement II:
-nitrophenol, m-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol will have same acidic strength as they have one nitro group
attached to the phenolic ring.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Answer (1)

38. Compound X on reaction with O3 followed by Zn/H2O gives formaldehyde and 2-methyl propanal as products.
The compound X is
(1) 2-Methylbut-2-ene
(2) Pent-2-ene
(3) 3-Methylbut-1-ene
(4) 2-Methylbut-1-ene
Answer (3)
SECTION – B

39. 2 3 3O (g) 2O (g)
for the above reaction at 298 K, KC is found to be 3.0 × 10–59. If the concentration of O2 at equilibrium is
0.040 M then concentration of O3 in M is
(1) 2.4 × 1031
(2) 1.2 × 1021
(3) 4.38 × 10–32
(4) 1.9 × 10–63
Answer (3)

40. A 10.0 L flask contains 64 g of oxygen at 27ºC. (Assume O2 gas is behaving ideally). The pressure inside
the flask in bar is (Given R = 0.0831 L bar K–1 mol–1)
(1) 49.8
(2) 4.9
(3) 2.5
(4) 498.6
Answer (2)

41. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
(Ores) (Composition)
(a) Haematite (i) Fe3O4
(b) Magnetite (ii) ZnCO3
(c) Calamine (iii) Fe2O3
(d) Kaolinite (iv) [Al2(OH)4Si2O5]
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
Answer (4)

42. The product formed from the following reaction sequence is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer (2)

43. The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is
(1) 1-bromo-4-methyl-5-chlorohexan-3-ol
(2) 6-bromo-4-methyl-2-chlorohexan-4-ol
(3) 1-bromo-5-chloro-4-methylhexan-3-ol
(4) 6-bromo-2-chloro-4-methythexan-4-ol
Answer (3)

44. The order of energy absorbed which is responsible for the color of complexes
(A) [Ni(H2O)2(en)2]2+
(B) [Ni(H2O)4(en)]2+ and
(C) [Ni(en)3]2+
is
(1) (C) > (A) > (B)
(2) (B) > (A) > (C)
(3) (A) > (B) > (C)
(4) (C) > (B) > (A)
Answer (1)

45. For a first order reaction A → Products, initial concentration of A is 0.1 M, which becomes 0.001 M after
5 minutes. Rate constant for the reaction in min–1 is
(1) 0.4606
(2) 0.2303
(3) 1.3818
(4) 0.9212
Answer (4)

46. Copper crystallises in fcc unit cell with cell edge length of 3.608 × 10–8 cm. The density of copper is
8.92 g cm–3. Calculate the atomic mass of copper.
(1) 60 u
(2) 65 u
(3) 63.1 u
(4) 31.55 u
Answer (3)

47. If radius of second Bohr orbit of the He+ ion is 105.8 pm, what is the radius of third Bohr orbit of Li2+ ion?
(1) 1.587 pm
(2) 158.7 Å
(3) 158.7 pm
(4) 15.87 pm
Answer (3)

48.Which one of the following is not formed when acetone reacts with 2-pentanone in the presence of dilute
NaOH followed by heating?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer (4)

49 Find the emf of the cell in which the following reaction takes place at 298 K
( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) 2 Ni s 2Ag 0.001M Ni 0.001M 2Ag s + + + → +
cell
2.303 RT
Given that E 10.5 V, 0.059 at 298 K
F
  
 = = 
 
(1) 0.9615 V
(2) 1.05 V
(3) 1.0385 V
(4) 1.385 V
Answer (NA)

50 Given below are two statements:
Statement I:
In Lucas test, primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols are distinguished on the basis of their reactivity with
conc. HCl + ZnCl2, known as Lucas Reagent.
Statement II:
Primary alcohols are most reactive and immediately produce turbidity at room temperature on reaction with
Lucas Reagent.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Answer (1)
51 In the neutral or faintly alkaline medium, KMnO4 oxidises iodide into iodate. The change in oxidation state of
manganese in this reaction is from
(1) +7 to +3
(2) +6 to +5
(3) +7 to +4
(4) +6 to +4
Answer (3)
52 The pollution due to oxides of sulphur gets enhanced due to the presence of:
(a) particular matter
(b) ozone
(c) hydrocarbons
(d) hydrogen peroxide
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) (b), (c), (d) only
(2) (a), (c), (d) only
(3) (a), (d) only
(4) (a), (b), (d) only
Answer (4)

Zoology 

1. Natural selection where more individuals acquire specific character value other than the mean character
value, leads to
(1) Disruptive change (2) Random change
(3) Stabilising change (4) Directional change
Answer (4)

2 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Mycoplasma can pass through less than 1 micron filter size.
Statement I : Mycoplasma are bacteria with cell wall.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Answer (1)

3 A dehydration reaction links two glucose molecules to product maltose. If the formula for glucose is C6H12O6
then what is the formula of maltose?
(1) C12H22O11 (2) C12H24O11
(3) C12H20O10 (4) C12H24O12
Answer (1)

4 Which of the following statements with respect to Endoplasmic Reticulum is incorrect?
(1) In prokaryotes only RER are present
(2) SER are the sites for lipid synthesis
(3) RER has ribosomes attached to ER
(4) SER is devoid of ribosomes
Answer (1)

5 Tegmina in cockroach, arises from
(1) Metathorax
(2) Prothorax and Mesothorax
(3) Prothorax
(4) Mesothorax
Answer (4)

6. If the length of a DNA molecule is 1.1 metres, what will be the approximate number of base pairs?
(1) 3.3 × 106 bp (2) 6.6 × 106 bp
(3) 3.3 × 109 bp (4) 6.6 × 109 bp
Answer (3)

7 Identify the asexual reproductive structure associated with Penicillium :
(1) Gemmules (2) Buds
(3) Zoospores (4) Conidia
Answer (4)

8 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.
Reason (R) : Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in the adult vertebrates.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below :
(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer (3)

9 Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals or higher proteins and healthier fats is called :
(1) Bio-fortification (2) Bio-accumulation
(3) Bio-magnification (4) Bio-remediation
Answer (1)
. Under normal physiological conditions in human being every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver
________ ml of O2 to the tissues.
(1) 4 ml (2) 10 ml
(3) 2 ml (4) 5 ml
Answer (4)

10 In which of the following animals, digestive tract has additional chambers like crop and gizzard?
(1) Catla, Columba, Crocodilus (2) Pavo, Psittacula, Corvus
(3) Corvus, Columba, Chameleon (4) Bufo, Balaenoptera, Bangarus
Answer (2)

11 Which of the following functions is not performed by secretions from salivary glands?
(1) Lubrication of oral cavity
(2) Digestion of disaccharides
(3) Control bacterial population in mouth
(4) Digestion of complex carbohydrates
Answer (2)

13. Nitrogenous waste is excreted in the form of pellet or paste by :
(1) Hippocampus
(2) Pavo
(3) Ornithorhynchus
(4) Salamandra
Answer (2)

14 In an E. Coli strain i gene gets mutated and its product can not bind the inducer molecule. If growth medium
is provided with lactose, what will be the outcome?
(1) z, y, a genes will not be translated
(2) RNA polymerase will bind the promoter region
(3) Only z gene will get transcribed
(4) z, y, a genes will be transcribed
Answer (1)

15 Which of the following is present between the adjacent bones of the vertebral column?
(1) Areolar tissue
(2) Smooth muscle
(3) Intercalated discs
(4) Cartilage
Answer (4)
16 Given below are two statements :
Statement I :
Fatty acids and glycerols cannot be absorbed into the blood.
Statement II :
Specialized lymphatic capillaries called lacteals carry chylomicrons into lymphatic vessels and ultimately into
the blood.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Answer (3)

17 Select the incorrect statement with reference to mitosis:
(1) Chromosomes decondense at telophase
(2) Splitting of centromere occurs at anaphase
(3) All the chromosomes lie at the equator at metaphase
(4) Spindle fibres attach to centromere of chromosomes
Answer (4)

18. Given below are two statements:
Statement I :
The release of sperms into the seminiferous tubules is called spermiation.
Statement II :
Spermiogenesis is the process of formation of sperms from spermatogonia.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Answer (1)

19. Given below are two statements :
Statement I :
The coagulum is formed of network of threads called thrombins.
Statement II :
Spleen is the graveyard of erythrocytes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Answer (2)

20. Identify the microorganism which is responsible for the production of an immunosuppressive molecule
cyclosporin A :
(1) Aspergillus niger (2) Streptococcus cerevisiae
(3) Trichoderma polysporum (4) Clostridium butylicum
Answer (3)

21 Which of the following statements are true for spermatogenesis but do not hold true for Oogenesis?
(a) It results in the formation of haploid gametes
(b) Differentiation of gamete occurs after the completion of meiosis
(c) Meiosis occurs continuously in a mitotically dividing stem cell population
(d) It is controlled by the Luteinising hormone (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) secreted by
the anterior pituitary
(e) It is initiated at puberty
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) (b), (d) and (e) only (2) (b), (c) and (e) only
(3) (c) and (e) only (4) (b) and (c) only
Answer (2)

22. In-situ conservation refers to:
(1) Conserve only endangered species
(2) Conserve only extinct species
(3) Protect and conserve the whole ecosystem
(4) Conserve only high-risk species
Answer (3)

23 Lippe’s loop is a type of contraceptive used as:
(1) Non-Medicated IUD (2) Copper releasing IUD
(3) Cervical barrier (4) Vault barrier
Answer (1)

24 Which of the following is a correct match for disease and its symptoms?
(1) Myasthenia gravis – Genetic disorder resulting in weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle
(2) Muscular dystrophy – An auto immune disorder causing progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle
(3) Arthritis – Inflammed joints
(4) Tetany – High Ca2+ level causing rapid spasms.
Answer (3)

25 Which of the following is not the function of conducting part of respiratory system?
(1) Temperature of inhaled air is brought to body temperature
(2) Provides surface for diffusion of O2 and CO2
(3) It clears inhaled air from foreign particles
(4) Inhaled air is humidified
Answer (2)

26 Regarding Meiosis, which of the statements is incorrect?
(1) Pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination occurs in Meiosis-I
(2) Four haploid cells are formed at the end of Meiosis-II
(3) There are two stages in Meiosis, Meiosis-I and II
(4) DNA replication occurs in S phase of Meiosis-II
Answer (4)

27 Detritivores breakdown detritus into smaller particles. This process is called:
(1) Humification (2) Decomposition
(3) Catabolism (4) Fragmentation
Answer (4)

28 Which of the following is not a connective tissue?
(1) Cartilage (2) Neuroglia
(3) Blood (4) Adipose tissue
Answer (2)

29. In the taxonomic categories which hierarchical arrangement in ascending order is correct in case of
animals?
(1) Kingdom, Order, Class, Phylum, Family, Genus, Species
(2) Kingdom, Order, Phylum, Class, Family, Genus, Species
(3) Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
(4) Kingdom, Class, Phylum, Family, Order, Genus, Species
Answer (3*)
* Language of question is wrongly framed. The word ascending shoud be replaced by descending
30 Given Below are two statements:
Statement I:
Restriction endonucleases recognise specific sequence to cut DNA known as palindromic nucleotide
sequence.
Statement II:
Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA strand a little away from the centre of the palindromic site.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Answer (3)

31 In gene therapy of Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency, the patient requires periodic infusion of
genetically engineered lymphocytes because :
(1) Lymphocyctes from patient’s blood are grown in culture, outside the body.
(2) Genetically engineered lymphocytes are not immortal cells.
(3) Retroviral vector is introduced into these lymphocytes.
(4) Gene isolated from marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at embryonic stages
Answer (2)

32.Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A):
Osteoporosis is caharacterised by decreased bone mass and increased chance of fractures.
Reason (R):
Common cause of osteoporosis is increased levels of estrogen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer (1)

33. At which stage of the life the oogenesis process is initiated?
(1) Birth (2) Adult
(3) Puberty (4) Embryonic development stage
Answer (4)

34 If ‘8’ Drosophila in a laboratory population of ‘80’ died during a week, the death rate in the population is
______ individuals per Drosophila per week.
(1) 1.0
(2) zero
(3) 0.1
(4) 10
Answer (3)

35 Given below are two statements:
Statement I:
Autoimmune disorder is a condition where body defense mechanism recognizes its own cells as foreign
bodies.
Statement II:
Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition where body does not attack self cells.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Answer (1)

36 The recombination frequency between the genes a & c is 5%, b & c is 15%, b & d is 9%, a & b is 20%, c &
d is 24% and a & d is 29%. What will be the sequence of these genes on a linear chromosome?
(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, c, b, d
(3) a, d, b, c
(4) d, b, a, c
Answer (2)

38 Which of the following are not the effects of Parathyroid hormone?
(a) Stimulates the process of bone resorption
(b) Decreases Ca2+ level in blood
(c) Reabsorption of Ca2+ by renal tubules
(d) Decreases the absorption of Ca2+ from digested food
(e) Increases metabolism of carbohydrates
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) (a) and (e) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (b), (d) and (e) only
Answer (4)

39 Which of the following is not a desirable feature of a cloning vector?
(1) Presence of single restriction enzyme site
(2) Presence of two or more recognition sites
(3) Presence of origin of replication
(4) Presence of a marker gene
Answer (2)

40 Match List-I with List-II with respect to methods of Contraception and their respective actions.
List-I List-II
(a) Diaphragms (i) Inhibit ovulation and Implantation
(b) Contraceptive Pills (ii) Increase phagocytosis of sperm within Uterus
(c) Intra Uterine Devices (iii) Absence of Menstrual cycle and ovulation following parturition
(d) Lactational Amenorrhea (iv) They cover the cervix blocking the entry of sperms
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)
(2) (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)
(3) (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (iii), (d) – (ii)
(4) (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)
Answer (4)

41. If a colour blind female marries a man whose mother was also colour blind, what are the chances of her
progeny having colour blindness?
(1) 75% (2) 100%
(3) 25% (4) 50%
Answer (2)

42. Which of the following statements is not true?
(1) Homology indicates common ancestry
(2) Flippers penguins and dolphins are a pair of homologous organs
(3) Analogous structures are a result of convergent evolution
(4) Sweet potato and potato is an example of analogy
Answer (2)

43. Which of the following is a correct statement?
(1) Slime moulds aer saprophytic organisms classified under Kingdom Monera.
(2) Mycoplasma have DNA, Ribosome and cell wall.
(3) Cyanobacteria are a group of autotrophic organisms classified under kingdom Monera.
(4) Bacteria are exclusively heterotrophic organisms.
Answer (?)

44. Select the incorrect statement with respect to acquired immunity.
(1) Anamnestic response is due to memory of first ecounter.
(2) Acquired immunity is non-specific type of defense present at the time of birth.
(3) Primary response is produced when our body encounters a pathogen for the first time.
(4) Anamnestic response is elicited on subsequent encounters with the same pathogen.
Answer (2)

45. Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
(a) Bronchioles (i) Dense Regular Connective Tissue
(b) Goblet Cell (ii) Loose Connective Tissue
(c) Tendons (iii) Glandular Tissue
(d) Adipose Tissue (iv) Ciliated Epithelium
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii) (2) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(3) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii) (4) (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv)
Answer (3)

46. Statements related to human Insulin are given below.
Which statement(s) is/are correct about genetically engineered Insulin?
(a) Pro-hormone insulin contain extra stretch of C-peptide
(b) A-peptide and B-peptide chains of insulin were produced separately in E.coli, extracted and combined
by creating disulphide bond between them.
(c) Insulin used for treating Diabetes was extracted from Cattles and Pigs.
(d) Pro-hormone Insulin needs to be processed for converting into a mature and functional hormone.
(e) Some patients develop allergic reactions to the foreign insulin.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) (c) and (d) only (2) (c), (d) and (e) only
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only (4) (b) only
Answer (4)
47 Given below are two statements:
Statements I :
In a scrubber the exhaust from the thermal plant is passed through the electric wires to charge the dust
particles.
Statement II :
Particulate matter (PM 2.5) can not be removed by scrubber but can be removed by an electrostatic
precipitator.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Answer (2)

48 Ten E.coli cells with 15N – dsDNA are incubated in medium containing 14N nucleotide. After 60 minutes, how
many E.coli cells will have DNA totally free from 15N?
(1) 60 cells (2) 80 cells
(3) 20 cells (4) 40 cells
Answer (1)

49 Select the incorrect statement regarding synapses :
(1) Chemical synapses use neurotransmitters
(2) Impulse transmission across a chemical synapse is always faster than that across an electrical
synapse.
(3) The membranes of presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons are in close proximity in an electrical
synapse.
(4) Electrical current can flow directly from one neuron into the other across the electrical synapse.
Answer (2)

50 Which one of the following statements is correct?
(1) Blood moves freely from atrium to the ventricle during joint diastole.
(2) Increased ventricular pressure causes closing of the semilunar valves.
(3) The atrio-ventricular node (AVN) generates an action potential to stimulate atrial contraction
(4) The tricuspid and the bicuspid valves open due to the pressure exerted by the simultaneous contraction
of the atria
Answer (1)

Botany

1. Which one of the following statement is not true regarding gel electrophoresis technique?
(1) The presence of chromogenic substrate gives blue coloured DNA bands on the gel.
(2) Bright orange coloured bands of DNA can be observed in the gel when exposed to UV light.
(3) The process of extraction of separated DNA strands from gel is called elution.
(4) The separated DNA fragments are stained by using ethidium bromide.
Answer (1)

2. Given below are two statements :
Statement I :
Mendel studied seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plants and proposed the Laws of Inheritance.
Statement II :
Seven characters examined by Mendel in his experiment on pea plants were seed shape and colour, flower
colour, pod shape and colour, flower position and stem height.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Answer (3)

3 Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
(1) Porphyra – Floridian Starch
(2) Volvox – Starch
(3) Ectocarpus – Fucoxanthin
(4) Ulothrix – Mannitol
Answer (4)

4 XO type of sex determination can be found in :
(1) Grasshoppers
(2) Monkeys
(3) Drosophila
(4) Birds
Answer (1)

5 The appearance of recombination nodules on homologous chromosomes during meiosis characterizes :
(1) Sites at which crossing over occurs
(2) Terminalization
(3) Synaptonemal complex
(4) Bivalent
Answer (1)

6. Which of the following is not a method of ex situ conservation?
(1) Micropropagation
(2) Cryopreservation
(3) In vitro fertilization
(4) National Parks
Answer (4)

7 Identify the incorrect statement related to Pollination :
(1) Flowers produce foul odours to attract flies and beetles to get pollinated
(2) Moths and butterflies are the most dominant pollinating agents among insects
(3) Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants
(4) Pollination by wind is more common amongst abiotic pollination
Answer (2)

8 Given below are two statements :
Statement I :
The primary CO2
acceptor in C4
plants is phosphoenolpyruvate and is found in the mesophyll cells.
Statement II :
Mesophyll cells of C4
plants lack RuBisCo enzyme. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Answer (3)

9 In old trees the greater part of secondary xylem is dark brown and resistant to insect attack due to :
(a) secretion of secondary metabolities and their deposition in the lumen of vessels.
(b) deposition of organic compounds like tannins and resins in the central layers of stem.
(c) deposition of suberin and aromatic substances in the outer layer of stem.
(d) deposition of tannins, gum, resin and aromatic substances in the peripheral layers of stem.
(e) presence of parenchyma cells, functionally active xylem elements and essential oils.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (d) and (e) Only
(2) (b) and (d) Only
(3) (a) and (b) Only
(4) (c) and (d) Only
Answer (3)

10 Which one of the following produces nitrogen fixing nodules on the roots of Alnus?
(1) Rhodospirillum
(2) Beijerinckia
(3) Rhizobium
(4) Frankia
Answer (4)

11. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Decomposition is a process in which the detritus is degraded into simpler substances by
microbes.
Statement II: Decomposition is faster if the detritus is rich in lignin and chitin.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Answer (1)

12 Habitat loss and fragmentation, over exploitation, alien species invasion and co-extinction are causes for:
(1) Biodiversity loss
(2) Natality
(3) Population explosion
(4) Competition
Answer (1)

13 Hydrocolloid carrageen is obtained from:
(1) Rhodophyceae only
(2) Phaeophyceae only
(3) Chlorophyceae and Phaeophyceae
(4) Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae
Answer (1)

14 “Girdling Experiment” was performed by Plant Physiologists to identify the plant tissue through which:
(1) for both water and food transportation
(2) osmosis is observed
(3) water is transported
(4) food is transported
Answer (4)
15. The flowers are Zygomorphic in:
(a) Mustard
(b) Gulmohar
(c) Cassia
(d) Datura
(e) Chilly
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (d), (e) Only
(2) (c), (d), (e) Only
(3) (a), (b), (c) Only
(4) (b), (c) Only
Answer (4)

16. Which one of the following is not true regarding the release of energy during ATP synthesis through
chemiosmosis? It involves:
(1) Movement of protons across the membrane to the stroma
(2) Reduction of NADP to NADPH2
on the stroma side of the membrane
(3) Breakdown of proton gradient
(4) Breakdown of electron gradient
Answer (4)

17 The device which can remove particulate matter present in the exhaust from a thermal power plant is :
(1) Electrostatic Precipitator
(2) Catalytic Convertor
(3) STP
(4) Incinerator
Answer (1)

18 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) :
Polymerase chain reaction is used in DNA amplification.
Reason (R) :
The ampicillin resistant gene is used as a selectable marker to check transformation
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer (4)

19 Which one of the following plants does not show plasticity?
(1) Buttercup
(2) Maize
(3) Cotton
(4) Coriander
Answer (2)

20 The process of translation of mRNA to proteins begins as soon as :
(1) Both the subunits join together to bind with mRNA
(2) The tRNA is activated and the larger subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA
(3) The small subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA
(4) The larger subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA
Answer (3)

21. Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements :
(a) Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin
(b) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active
(c) Histone octomer is wrapped by negatively charged DNA in nucleosome
(d) Histones are rich in lysine and arginine
(e) A typical nucleosome contains 400 bp of DNA helix
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (b), (e) Only
(2) (a), (c), (e) Only
(3) (b), (d), (e) Only
(4) (a), (c), (d) Only
Answer (4)

22. Read the following statements about the vascular bundles :
(a) In roots, xylem and phloem in a vascular bundle are arranged in an alternate manner along the different
radii.
(b) Conjoint closed vascular bundles do not possess cambium
(c) In open vascular bundles, cambium is present in between xylem and phloem
(d) The vascular bundles of dicotyledonous stem possess endarch protoxylem
(e) In monocotyledonous root, usually there are more than six xylem bundles present
Choose the correct answer form the options given below :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) Only
(2) (a), (c), (d) and (e) Only
(3) (a), (b) and (d) Only
(4) (b), (c), (d) and (e) Only
Answer (NA)

23 Exoskeleton of arthropods is composed of :
(1) Chitin
(2) Glucosamine
(3) Cutin
(4) Cellulose
Answer (1)

24 What is the net gain of ATP when each molecule of glucose is converted to two molecules of pyruvic acid?
(1) Two
(2) Eight
(3) Four
(4) Six
Answer (1)

25. Which of the following is not observed during apoplastic pathway ?
(1) The movement is aided by cytoplasmic streaming
(2) Apoplast is continuous and does not provide any barrier to water movement.
(3) Movement of water occurs through intercellular spaces and wall of the cells.
(4) The movement does not involve crossing of cell membrane
Answer (1)

26 Which one of the following plants shows vexillary aestivation and diadelphous stamens?
(1) Allium cepa
(2) Solanum nigrum
(3) Colchicum autumnale
(4) Pisum sativum
Answer (4)

27 DNA polymorphism forms the basis of
(1) Both genetic mapping and DNA finger printing
(2) Translation
(3) Genetic mapping
(4) DNA finger printing
Answer (1)

28 What amount of energy is released from glucose during lactic acid fermentation?
(1) About 10%
(2) Less than 7%
(3) Approximately 15%
(4) More than 18%
Answer (2)

29 Identify the correct set of statements :
(a) The leaflets are modified into pointed hard thorns in Citrus and Bougainvillea
(b) Axillary buds form slender and spirally coiled tendrils in cucumber and pumpkin
(c) Stem is flattened and fleshy in Opuntia and modified to perform the function of leaves
(d) Rhizophora shows vertically upward growing roots that help to get oxygen for respiration
(e) Subaerially growing stems in grasses and strawberry help in vegetative propagation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (b), (c), (d) and (e) Only
(2) (a), (b), (d) and (e) Only
(3) (b) and (c) Only
(4) (a) and (d) Only
Answer (1)

30 Which one of the following statements cannot be connected to Predation?
(1) Both the interacting species are negatively impacted
(2) It is necessitated by nature of maintain the ecological balance
(3) It helps in maintaining species diversity in a community
(4) It might lead to extinction of a species
Answer (1)

31. Given below are two statements :
Statement I :
Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous
Statement II :
Cleistogamy is disadvantageous as there is no chance for cross pollination
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Booth Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Answer (3)

32 Production of Cucumber has increased manifold in recent years. Application of which of the following
phytohormones has resulted in this increased yield as the hormone is known to produce female flowers in
the plants :
(1) Ethylene
(2) Cytokinin
(3) ABA
(4) Gibberellin
Answer (1)

33 Match List -I with List – II
List -I List -II
(a) Manganese (i) Activates the enzyme catalase
(b) Magnesium (ii) Required for pollen germination
(c) Boron (iii) Activates enzymes of respiration
(d) Iron (iv) Function in splitting of water during photosynthesis
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a)-(vi), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Answer (4)

34 Which one of the following never occurs during mitotic cell division?
(1) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
(2) Coiling and condensation of the chromatids
(3) Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes
(4) Movement of centrioles towards opposite poles
Answer (1)

35. The gaseous plant growth regulator is used in plants to :
(1) help overcome apical dominance
(2) kill dicotyledonous weeds in the fields
(3) speed up the malting process
(4) promote root growth and roothair formation to increase the absorption surface
Answer (4)

36 Match the plant with the kind of life cycle it exhibits:
List-I List-II
(a) Spirogyra (i) Dominant diploid sporophyte vascular plant, with highly
reduced male or female gametophyte
(b) Fern (ii) Dominant haploid free-living gametophyte
(c) Funaria (iii) Dominant diploid sporophyte alternating with reduced
gametophyte called prothallus
(d) Cycas (iv) Dominant haploid leafy gametophyte alternating with
partially dependent multicellular sporophyte
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
Answer (4)

37 Which part of the fruit, labelled in the given figure makes it a false fruit?
(1) C → Thalamus
(2) D → Seed
(3) A → Mesocarp
(4) B → Endocarp
Answer (1)

38 Which one of the following will accelerate phosphorus cycle?
(1) Weathering of rocks
(2) Rain fall and storms
(3) Burning of fossil fuels
(4) Volcanic activity
Answer (1)

39. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
(a) Metacentric chromosome (i) Centromere situated close to the end forming one
extremely short and one very long arms
(b) Acrocentric chromosome (ii) Centromere at the terminal end
(c) Submetacentric (iii) Centromere in the middle forming two equal arms of
chromosomes
(d) Telocentric chromosome (iv) Centromere slightly away from the middle forming one
shorter arm and one longer arm
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
Answer (3)

40 The anatomy of springwood shown some peculiar features. Identify the correct set of statements about
springwood.
(a) It is also called as the earlywood
(b) In spring season cambium produces xylem elements with narrow vessels
(c) It is lighter in colour
(d) The springwood along with autumnwood shown alternate concentric rings forming annual rings
(e) It has lower density
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (d) Only
(2) (c), (d) and (e) Only
(3) (a), (b), (d) and (e) Only
(4) (a), (c), (d) and (e) Only
Answer (4)

41 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Mendel’s law of Independent assortment does not hold good for the genes that are located
closely on the same chromosome.
Reason (R) : Closely located genes assort independently.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer (1)

42. Read the following statements on lipids and find out correct set of statements:
(a) Leithin found in the plasma membrane is a glycolipid
(b) Saturated fatty acids possess one or more c = c bonds
(c) Gingely oil has lower melting point, hence remains as oil in winter
(d) Lipids are generally insoluble in water but soluble in some organic solvents
(e) When fattuy acid is esterified with gloycerol, monoglycerides are formed
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(1) (c), (d) and (e) only
(2) (a), (b) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only
(4) (a), (d) and (e) only
Answer (1)

43 What is the role of large bundle shealth cells found around the vascular bundles in C4 plants?
(1) To enable the plant to tolerate high temperature
(2) To protect the vascular tissue from high light intensity
(3) To provide the site for photorespiratory
(4) To increase the number of chloroplast for the operation of Calvin cycle
Answer (4)

44 In the following palindromic base sequences of DNA, which one can be cut easily by particular restriction
enzyme?
(1) 5CTCAGT3; 3GAGTCA5
(2) 5GTATTC3; 3CATAAG5
(3) 5GATACT3; 3CTATGA5
(4) 5GAATTC3; 3CTTAAG5
Answer (4)

45 The entire fleet of buses in Delhi were converted to CNG from diesel. In reference to this, which one of the
following statements is false?
(1) It is cheaper than diesel
(2) It can not be adulterated like diesel
(3) CNG burns more efficiently than diesel
(4) The same diesel enginc is used in CNG buses making the cost conversion low
Answer (4)

46. Addition of more solutes in a given solution will :
(1) make its water potential zero
(2) not affect the water potential at all
(3) raise its water potential
(4) lower its water potential
Answer (4)

47 Transposons can be used during which one of the following ?
(1) Autoradiography
(2) Gene sequencing
(3) Polymerase Chain Reaction
(4) Gene Silencing
Answer (3)

48 While explaining interspecific interaction of population, (+) sign is assigned for beneficial interaction, (–) sign
is assigned for detrimental interaction and (0) for neutral interaction. Which of the following interactions can
be assigned (+) for one specifies and (–) for another specifies involved in the interaction ?
(1) Commensalism
(2) Competition
(3) Predation
(4) Amensalim
Answer (3)

49 If a geneticist uses the blind approach for sequencing the whole genome of an organism, followed by
assignment of function to different segments, the methodology adopted by him is called as :
(1) Expressed sequence tags
(2) Bioinformatics
(3) Sequence annotation
(4) Gene mapping
Answer (3)

50 Which of the following occurs due to the presence of autosome linked dominant trait ?
(1) Haemophilia
(2) Thalessemia
(3) Sickle cell anaemia
(4) Myotonic dystrophy
Answer (4)

Q – 1 दो गतिमान कणों का विस्थापन समय अभिरेख चित्र में प्रदर्शित x -एक्स  से 30 डिग्री और 45 डिग्री का कौन बनाता है उसके वेगों का अनुपात क्या होगा

  • 1:√3 
  • √3:1 
  • 1:1
  • 1:2

Q-2 1 m भुजा एवं एक ओम प्रतिरोध वाला एक वर्गाकार घेरा 0.5 वाले चुंबकीय क्षेत्र में रखा है यदि घेरे का तल चुंबकीय क्षेत्र की दिशा के लंबवत है तो घेरे से गुजरने वाले चुंबकीय फ्लक्स का मान क्या होगा?

  • शून्य वेबर 
  • 2 वेबर 
  • 0.5 वेबर 
  • 1 वेबर 

Q -4  अर्ध तरंग दिष्टकारी के प्रयोग में यदि निवेश आवृत्ति 60 हर्टज है. तो आउटपुट आवृत्ति कितनी होगी?

  • 120 हर्टज 
  • शून्य 
  • 30 हर्टज 
  • 60 हर्टज 

Q -5  बल की विद्युत रेखाओं एवं सम विभव तल के बीच का कोण है ?

  • 180 डिग्री
  • जीरो डिग्री
  • 45 डिग्री
  • 90 डिग्री

Q -6 ∈r आपेक्षिक परावैद्युतांक एवं µr आपेक्षिक पारगम्यता वाले पदार्थ. के माध्यम से प्रकाश गुजरता है तो प्रकाश का वेग ν होगा ?(c -निर्वात में प्रकाश का वेग)

  • ν= c /√∈r μr 
  • ν=c 
  • ν=√ξr /μr 
  • ν=√μr/ξr

Q -7 विमाएं [MLT−2A-2] संबंधित है

  • विद्युत विद्युत शीलता
  • चुंबकीय फ्लक्स
  • स्व प्रेरकत्व
  • चुंबकीय पारगम्यता

Q- 8 नगण्य भार एवं 10 M लंबाई वाली किसी दृढ छड़ के दोनों सिरों. पर क्रम से 10 किलोग्राम एवं 20 किलोग्राम द्रव्य वाले दो पिंड लगे हैं तो 10 किलोग्राम द्रव्यमान वाले पिंड से निकाय के द्रव्यमान केंद्र की दूरी कितनी है?

  • 5 मीटर
  • 10/3 मीटर
  • 20/3 मीटर
  • 10 मीटर

Q – 9  √3 अपवर्तनांक वाले किसी कांच के तल पर कोई प्रकाश की किरण 60 डिग्री के कोण पर गिरती है अपवर्त्य एवं परावर्तित किरणों के बीच का कोण कितना होगा?

  • 120 डिग्री
  • 30 डिग्री
  • 60 डिग्री
  • 90 डिग्री

Q – 10 तापमान के बढ़ने के साथ विद्युत प्रतिरोध का मान-

  • चालकों के लिए घटता है किंतु अर्ध चालकों के लिए बढ़ता है
  • चालकों एवं अर्ध चालकों दोनों के लिए बढ़ता है
  • चालकों एवं अर्ध चालकों दोनों के लिए घटता है
  • चालकों के लिए बढ़ता है किंतु अर्ध चालकों के लिए घटता है.

Q- 11 प्राकृतिक वरण जिसमें अधिक व्यक्ति औसत लक्षण मान की तुलना में विशिष्ट लक्षण मान उपार्जित करते हैं, उसके द्वारा होता है

  • यादृच्छिक परिवर्तन
  • स्थाई कारक परिवर्तन
  • दिशात्मक परिवर्तन
  • विदारक परिवर्तन

Q-12 कशेरुक दंड की दो निकटवर्ती अस्तियों के बीच में क्या उपस्थित होता है

  • चिकनी पेशी
  • अंतर्विष्ट डिस्क
  • उपास्थि
  • एरियॉलर उत्तक

Q-13 निम्नलिखित में से किस के दौरान ट्रांस्पोजोन को प्रयुक्त किया जा सकता है ?

  • जीन अनुक्रमण
  • पॉलीमरोज श्रृंखला अभिक्रिया
  • जीन साइलेंसिंग
  • ऑटोरेडियोग्राफी

Q-14 C4 पादपों में संवहन बंडल के चारों ओर पाई जाने वाली बड़ी बंडल अच्छाद का क्या कार्य है

  • संवहन ऊतकों को उच्च प्रकाश तीव्रता से बचाना
  • प्रकाश श्वसन पथ के लिए स्थान प्रदान करना
  • केल्विन चक्र के संचालन के लिए क्लोरोप्लास्ट की संख्या को बढ़ाना
  • पौधों को उच्च तापमान सहने की शक्ति देना

Q-15 निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा रोग ऑटोसोम संयोजी प्रभावी लक्षण की उपस्थिति के कारण होता है

  • थैलेसीमिया
  • सिकल सेल एनीमिया
  • मायोटोनिक डायस्ट्रोफी
  • हीमोफीलिया

Q-16 एक दिए गए विलयन में और विलेय मिलाने से क्या होगा ?

  • जल विभव में कोई प्रभाव नहीं पड़ेगा
  • जल विभव बढ़ जाएगा
  • जल विभव कम हो जाएगा
  • इसका जल विभव शून्य हो जाएगा

Q-17 निम्नलिखित में से कौन फास्फोरस चक्र की गति को बढ़ावा देगा?

  • वर्षा और तूफान
  • जीवाश्म ईंधन का जलना
  • ज्वालामुखी क्रियाकलाप
  • चट्टानों का अपक्षय

Q-18 निम्नलिखित में से कौन सुघटयता प्रदर्शित नहीं करता ?

  • मक्का
  • कपास
  • धनिया
  • बटरकप

Q-19 निम्नलिखित में से कौन एन्नल्स की जड़ों में नाइट्रोजन स्थिरीकारक ग्रंथिकाएँ उत्पन्न करता है

  • बिजर्निकिया
  • राइजोबियम
  • फ़्रैंकिया
  • रोडोस्पिरिलम

Q-20 परागण के विषय में गलत कथन को पहचानिए-

  • कीटों में सलभ और तितलियां सबसे अधिक परागण करते हैं
  • पुष्पो पादपों में जल के द्वारा परागण बहुत ही दुर्लभ है
  • अजैविक परागण में वायु द्वारा परागण बहुतायत है
  • परागण के लिए मक्खियों और भृंगो को आकर्षित करने के लिए पुष्प बदबूदार गंध उत्पन्न करते हैं

Q-21 सल्फर के ऑक्साइडों द्वारा होने वाले प्रदूषण में निम्नलिखित में से किसकी उपस्थिति के द्वारा वृद्धि हो जाती है

  • कनीकीय द्रव्य
  • ओजोन
  • हाइड्रोकार्बन
  • हाइड्रोजन पराक्साइड

Q-22 वह कौन सा यंत्र है जो ताप विद्युत संयंत्र के निर्वातक में उपस्थिति कनीकीय पदार्थों को निकाल सकता है

  • उत्प्रेरक परिवर्तक
  • एस.टी.पी.
  • भस्मक
  • वैद्युत अवक्षेपित्र

Q -23 निम्नलिखित में से किसमें पुष्प एकव्याससममित होते हैं

  • सरसों
  • गुलमोहर
  • केशिया
  • धतूरा

Q-24 गैसीय पादप वृद्धि नियंत्रक पादपों में किस लिए प्रयुक्त किए जाते हैं

  • खेतों में द्विबीजपत्री खरपतवार को नष्ट करने के लिए
  • माल्टन प्रक्रम की गति बढ़ाने के लिए
  • जड़ों की वृद्धि और मूल रोमों के निर्माण के उन्नत करने के लिए जिसमें की अवशोषण सतह में वृद्धि हो
  • शीर्षस्थ प्रभाविता के नियंत्रण में सहायता के लिए

Question Paper Download Click here

NEET Question Paper Code Download 
Code S1, S2, S3, S4, S6 Click Here

NEET Answer key Code T1, T2, T3, T4, T6 

The National Testing Agency NEET answer key mentions the answers to the questions asked in the final exam. Using the NEET answer key 2022 final PDF by its official website NTA, candidates can calculate their expected scores to be obtained in the NEET exam. The NTA NEET 2022 answer key will be released in two phases – provisional and final. The authorities will first release the provisional NEET answer key 2022 and allow the candidates to raise objections against it.

NEET Question Paper Code Download 
Code T1, T2, T3, T4, T6 Click Here
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NEET Answer Key Physics, Chemistry, and Biology (Unofficial) – OMR Sheet PDF

Candidate will be able to challenge the NEET answer key 2022 by paying a fee of Rs 200 per question in online mode. Along with the answer key, the NTA NEET OMR sheet will be released and a copy will be sent to the registered email ID. Candidates will be able to download the official NEET answer key 2022 on the release date. Any confirmation on NEET 2022 official answer key release date will be updated here. Read the article to get details on the final NEET 2022 answer key, how to download it, the process to calculate scores, Cut off, Merit list

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NEET 2022 Answer Key How to Download

Here we will explain you step by step to download NEET answer key.

  • First of all you visit the official website of Nesting National Testing Agency – neet.nta.nic.in
  • As soon as you visit its official website, a window will open in front of you in which there will be many tabs like Examination, Mock Test, Result and Answer Key.
  • You have to click on answer key option
  • On clicking on it, a new window will open in front of you in which you will get the question paper code wise.
  • You have to click on the code paper from the code for which you have given the exam.
  • As you click, the answer key of your code will be opened in front of you.
  • You can also save it as PDF or you can also print it
Is Neet answer key released 2022?

No, It will be release soon.

How do I get NEET Answer Key 2022?

Visit the official website, neet.nta.nic.in. Click on the official link of NEET answer key.

When NEET 2022 answer key will be released?

NEET 2022 Answer Key will be released soon.

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